Time for the legal experts to weigh in.
If Section 4 of the 14th Amendment says that the validity of the public debt of the United States, as authorized by law...shall not be questioned, and that particular section has already been applied in 1866 against a very similar set of circumstances, does it stand as violation of a law if a sitting Congressman refuses to honor it by refusing to allow debt limits to be voted on?
To clarify, if the GOP believes it can impeach the President over this, doesn't the law work both ways?
