Originally Posted by NW Ponderer
Originally Posted by bigswede
Usually when a defamation case goes to court it is the party injured by slander that sues the other party. In the OJ Simpson case it was the other way around, wasn't it? He was sued into paying them off to shut up about how his wife died.
Swede, it gets difficult/tiresome when you make stuff up you don't know or deflect and don't respond to the actual point. The point I was making is that there are different standards of proof for CIVIL cases than CRIMINAL cases. They should NEVER be confused.
We're all square on that. But you are dodging my view on the comparison with Simpson.

Cowardly men always plot to label Freedom as anarchy!