If by "wealth" you mean the world's total accumulated goods and services available at any given time, you are saying that the total accumulated goods and services available 1000 years ago is equal to the amount available today. Do you really what to stand by that?
Yours,
Issodhos
Oh YES!
Of course it's my opinion, but yes... and not just 1000 years ago, but since the beginning of time...
It's probably a little confusing, but the finite wealth theory, is that wherever there is gain...there is a corresponding loss. Naturally it goes much further than this... I think you can probably grab a corner of the concept of "wealth" by a quick trip to Google on just the word "wealth". Finite wealth is a major part of many basic theories of economics.
In the current subject... which seems to be leaning to some kind of question about communism... I would consider the idea of wealth and finite wealth to be more of a point about wealth concentration.
In the minds of most people, wealth concentration equates to the redistribution of wealth... and in fact nothing could be further from the truth. We had a very, very long thread here on RR about three years ago on this subject.
