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If you allow pollution on your property to flow onto another's property, you have negatively impacted his property. In doing so you have violated his property rights, including his right to the peaceful enjoyment of that property, by using his property without his consent. His recourse would be to demand that you cease polluting his property and compensate him for his loss. Yours, Issodhos
Yes but we all know how that works.... the polluting property owner simply asserts that the pollution was benign, damage cannot be proved, and damage cannot be proven to be a direct result to the "pollution," and after all it is not really pollution as much as a refletion of natural changes in he enviroment that take place all of the time, and that the scientists in this issue are paid shills who will find pollution and damage everywhere because it puts money in their pocket, etc etc etc....
"It's not a lie if you believe it." -- George Costanza The whole problem with the world is that fools and fanatics are always so certain of themselves. --Bertrand Russel
