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Okay, now we are in the somewhat silly state of having 18000+ same-sex married couples, but no other same-sex couples are allowed to marry. But if California state law and government agencies are required to recognise those 18000+ couples as married, what about a same-sex couple married in another state?

Since the Court has interpreted Prop 8 as not invalidating those 18000+ legal marriages, I think the same interpretation requires recognition of same-sex marriages performed in states where it is still (or newly) legal. So there will be a loophole a mile wide!

The Prop 8 supporters have effectively lost.

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The more I read of the decision, the more convinced I am that the majority took the cowardly way out. Apparently, they didn't mean what they said in the Marriage Cases, where they determined that
Quote
the exclusion of same-sex couples from the designation of marriage clearly is not necessary in order to afford full protection to all of the rights and benefits that currently are enjoyed by married opposite-sex couples; ...because same-sex couples who choose to marry will be subject to the same obligations and duties that currently are imposed on married opposite-sex couples. Second, retaining the traditional definition of marriage and affording same-sex couples only a separate and differently named family relationship will, as a realistic matter, impose appreciable harm on same-sex couples and their children, because denying such couples access to the familiar and highly favored designation of marriage is likely to cast doubt on whether the official family relationship of same-sex couples enjoys dignity equal to that of opposite-sex couples. Third, because of the widespread disparagement that gay individuals historically have faced, it is all the more probable that excluding same-sex couples from the legal institution of
marriage is likely to be viewed as reflecting an official view that their committed relationships are of lesser stature than the comparable relationships of opposite-sex couples. Finally... that gay individuals and same-sex couples are in some respects “second-class citizens” who may, under the law, be treated
differently from, and less favorably than, heterosexual individuals or opposite-sex couples.
Either the State has a compelling interest or it does not; and either being a second class citizen is a violation of the principles of the California Constitution, or it is not. Instead, the Court here cops out and states
Quote
Instead, the measure carves out a narrow and limited exception to these state constitutional rights, reserving the official designation of the term “marriage” for the union of opposite-sex couples as a matter of state constitutional law, but leaving undisturbed all of the other extremely significant substantive aspects of a same-sex couple’s state constitutional right to establish an officially recognized and protected family relationship and the guarantee of equal protection of the laws.
....
As a qualitative matter, the act of limiting access to the designation of marriage to opposite-sex couples does not have a substantial or, indeed, even a minimal effect on the governmental plan or framework of California that existed prior to the amendment.
Were they wrong then, or are they wrong now? These two conclusions are diametrically at odds and cannot be reconciled.

I can't stand weak reasoning in judicial opinions. It is truly a black day for Constitutional interpretation.


A well reasoned argument is like a diamond: impervious to corruption and crystal clear - and infinitely rarer.

Here, as elsewhere, people are outraged at what feels like a rigged game -- an economy that won't respond, a democracy that won't listen, and a financial sector that holds all the cards. - Robert Reich
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I think it might be appropriate to start a separate thread discussion the California Supreme Court's decision, and leave this thread for the more general discussion. I'm off to do so.


A well reasoned argument is like a diamond: impervious to corruption and crystal clear - and infinitely rarer.

Here, as elsewhere, people are outraged at what feels like a rigged game -- an economy that won't respond, a democracy that won't listen, and a financial sector that holds all the cards. - Robert Reich
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Originally Posted by pondering_it_all
Okay, now we are in the somewhat silly state of having 18000+ same-sex married couples, but no other same-sex couples are allowed to marry. But if California state law and government agencies are required to recognise those 18000+ couples as married, what about a same-sex couple married in another state?

Since the Court has interpreted Prop 8 as not invalidating those 18000+ legal marriages, I think the same interpretation requires recognition of same-sex marriages performed in states where it is still (or newly) legal. So there will be a loophole a mile wide!

The Prop 8 supporters have effectively lost.
I would think that, given the "full faith and credence" clause in the US constitution, a same-sex marriage performed in another state would have to be recognized in California, just as, long ago, states that either did not allow divirce or had to have them legislated were obligated to accept the "quicky" divorces that first put Nevada on the domestic-issues map.


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Gay marriage is just like interracial marriages from the 1940s.


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journeyman
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Thank you for the link Phil. I read the whole ruling. I would recommend it only to those who believe that semantics is the be-all end-all of communication. It is a cowardly and hypocritical pronouncement, particularly when one considers this the same court that ruled we could be married a year ago. The absolute highlight and reason for reading is the dissenting pronouncement from J Moreno. For those interested - Phil's link is for a pdf file - open it and go to page 151 for the dissenting opinion. It is the only thing I found worthy of the wait it has taken to get to this point

Quote
Describing the effect of Proposition 8 as narrow and limited fails to acknowledge the significance of the discrimination it requires. But even a narrow and limited exception to the promise of full equality strikes at the core of, and thus fundamentally alters, the guarantee of equal treatment that has pervaded the California Constitution since 1849. Promising equal treatment to some is fundamentally different from promising equal treatment to all.

Promising treatment that is almost equal is fundamentally different from ensuring truly equal treatment. Granting a disfavored minority only some of the rights enjoyed by the majority is fundamentally different from recognizing, as a constitutional imperative, that they must be granted all of those rights. Granting same-sex couples all of the rights enjoyed by opposite-sex couples, except the right to call their “ ‘officially recognized, and protected family relationship’ ” (maj. opn., ante, at p. 7) a marriage, still denies them equal treatment.

I'm pissed. I still believe that "we shall overcome" but quite frankly, I didn't even have the energy to join the protests tonight. My whole attitude right now is, if the homophobes who support this want to define us as "depraved, intolerant and hateful", they need only meet me right now to confirm all of their lies and myths.


We are constantly invited to be who we are. Henry David Thoreau
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My proposal:
Quote
This initiative measure is submitted to the people in accordance with the provisions of Article II, Section 8, of the California Constitution.

This initiative measure expressly amends the California Constitution by adding a section thereto; therefore, new provisions proposed to be added are printed in italic type to indicate that they are new.

SECTION 1. Title This measure shall be known and may be cited as the "California Marriage Protection Act."

SECTION 2. Section 7.6 is added to Article I of the California Constitution, to read:

SEC. 7.6. Only marriage between a man and a woman who are neither Catholic nor Mormon is valid or recognized in California.
Think it will fly? It comports with the California Supreme Court's Opinion. How about: "Only marriage between a man and a woman is valid or recognized in California, provided, however, that marriages by registered members of the Republican Party shall not be recognized." Or "Only marriage between a Caucasian man and a Caucasian woman is valid or recognized in California." These also comport with the analysis of the California Supreme Court. Any other groups we can discriminate against? It's easy, just follow the following script: Only _____ is valid or recognized in the State of California; e.g., "Only votes by registered members of the Democratic Party shall be valid or recognized in the State of California." Have some fun!!


A well reasoned argument is like a diamond: impervious to corruption and crystal clear - and infinitely rarer.

Here, as elsewhere, people are outraged at what feels like a rigged game -- an economy that won't respond, a democracy that won't listen, and a financial sector that holds all the cards. - Robert Reich
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Pooh-Bah
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I think an initiative that is targeted specifically at Mormons might just pass, with the right spin. Something like:

SEC. 7.6 Marriages may be performed only by government officials so empowered by their office, or by ordained clergy of established religious organizations. All marriages past and future performed by those claiming authority as leaders of pseudo-religious organizations such as Mormons, Scientologists, Humanists, Satanists, and Atheists are invalid.

SEC. 7.7 Couples whose existing unions are invalidated by this amendment will automatically be added to the registry of Civil Unions, until such time as they are married by a qualified official.

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Originally Posted by Jeffro
...It is a cowardly and hypocritical pronouncement, particularly when one considers this the same court that ruled we could be married a year ago...
Not at all. The ruling in 2008 was based on legislative action, and at the time, the CA Constitution had no definition of marriage.

This is why the couples of gay marriages from June 2008 to November 2008 legally stand.

In November 2008, a change to the CA Constitution occurred and the judges ruled that the will of the People changed the CA Constitution thru the admendment process and Prop 8 stands.

It's pretty cut and dry and follows the letter of the law and it's the Court's role to enforce laws - not make them.

The Court made the correct decisions.

The only other way the Court could have ruled is that Prop 8 was a revision to the CA Constitution which would require a change to the CA Constitution thru the CA legislature, then go to the People to vote on. The CA Court ruled that Prop 8 was an admendment and we have to live with that distinction of determination.

The CA judicial system worked as it was supposed to. I'm not happy that the Court ruled Prop 8 is an admendment instead of a revision, but the Court is wiser than I.

For a clearer undestanding of what happened yesterday, it's important to understand what an admendment is and what a revision is.

The only thing that can happen now is that the US Supreme Court rules that Prop 8 is a revision to the CA Constitution under the equal protection law of the US Constitution and invalidates Prop 8.


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All right, Rick, what right-wing site did you crib that from... wink


A well reasoned argument is like a diamond: impervious to corruption and crystal clear - and infinitely rarer.

Here, as elsewhere, people are outraged at what feels like a rigged game -- an economy that won't respond, a democracy that won't listen, and a financial sector that holds all the cards. - Robert Reich
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