Originally Posted by pondering_it_all
Okay, now we are in the somewhat silly state of having 18000+ same-sex married couples, but no other same-sex couples are allowed to marry. But if California state law and government agencies are required to recognise those 18000+ couples as married, what about a same-sex couple married in another state?

Since the Court has interpreted Prop 8 as not invalidating those 18000+ legal marriages, I think the same interpretation requires recognition of same-sex marriages performed in states where it is still (or newly) legal. So there will be a loophole a mile wide!

The Prop 8 supporters have effectively lost.
I would think that, given the "full faith and credence" clause in the US constitution, a same-sex marriage performed in another state would have to be recognized in California, just as, long ago, states that either did not allow divirce or had to have them legislated were obligated to accept the "quicky" divorces that first put Nevada on the domestic-issues map.


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